I wonder if anyone can enlighten me on something I have never understood.
Supposing that I include computer source code in a patent application. Let us suppose that the source code remains unchanged without modification by the patent attorney or the patent office. Who owns the copyright in the source code disclosed in the patent when it is issued? There was a time when a US patent was a work of the USPTO and, I believe, a UK patent was a work of Her Majesty's Stationery office.
More precisely, suppose that my patent is a European patent that is validated in various countries having varying approaches to copyright and then lapses or expires. Now, do I enjoy rights under copyright only in certain countries, in all those countries subscribing to the EPC by virtue of my initial filing or possibly throughout the whole world by virtue of the Berne convention? Or possibly nowhere - it seems that disclosure in a patent is treated differently to disclosure in other works.
Difficult question. Thanks for any replies.