Lets say that someone creates an mobile app (Android/IOS) that is identical in function to a TI-85 calculator... in fact it is a perfect representation of it and identical in function and appearance of the interface (an "emulation") -- the only difference being that the user is interacting with a flat touch screen instead of physical buttons... and that the logical computations are being made at the software-level rather than in pure hardware.
Would this app be said to infringe on the Texas Instruments device?
I'm assuming the answer is "yes, of course." ...
But, lets say someone invents a new app that also looks and feels like a device from the 80s, but this "device" never existed in the 80s... and would certainly have been patentable then (and still would be now as a stand-alone discrete hardware device).
I'm reading a lot of advice that basically says software patents are pointless and a waste of time, but, considering the hypothetical app in the previous paragraph... Why should it be considered ridiculous to patent this invention on modern devices simply because the implementation is "software?"